NEET Chemistry MCQs: Atomic Structure - 31 Oct 2026

Test your understanding of atomic structure with these NEET-level chemistry questions and answers. Practise quantum numbers, electronic configuration, Bohr's model and the dual nature of matter.

NEET Chemistry Class 11 5 MCQs

Q1. Quantum Numbers | Moderate

What is the maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in an atom having principal quantum number n = 3?

  1. 8
  2. 10
  3. 18
  4. 32
View Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer: C. 18

The maximum number of electrons in a shell is given by the formula 2n2.

For n = 3: 2 × 32 = 18 electrons.

The third shell contains 3s, 3p and 3d subshells.

Q2. Electronic Configuration | Moderate–Hard

Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is not possible for an electron?

  1. n = 3, l = 2, m = 0, s = +1/2
  2. n = 2, l = 1, m = -1, s = -1/2
  3. n = 3, l = 3, m = 0, s = +1/2
  4. n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = -1/2
View Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer: C

The azimuthal quantum number (l) can have values from 0 to n − 1.

For n = 3, the allowed values of l are 0, 1 and 2. Therefore, l = 3 is not allowed.

Remember: l always ranges from 0 to (n − 1).

Q3. Bohr's Atomic Model | Moderate

The energy of an electron in the second orbit of hydrogen atom is −3.4 eV. What will be the energy required to excite it from n = 2 to n = 3?

  1. 1.89 eV
  2. 3.40 eV
  3. 4.53 eV
  4. 10.2 eV
View Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer: A. 1.89 eV

Energy of an electron in hydrogen atom is:

En = −13.6/n2 eV

For n = 3: E3 = −13.6/9 = −1.51 eV.

Energy required = E3 − E2

= −1.51 − (−3.4) = 1.89 eV.

Q4. de Broglie Wavelength | Moderate–Hard

If the velocity of a moving particle is doubled, while its mass remains constant, what happens to its de Broglie wavelength?

  1. It becomes double
  2. It becomes half
  3. It becomes four times
  4. It remains unchanged
View Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer: B. It becomes half

According to de Broglie's equation:

λ = h/mv

Wavelength is inversely proportional to velocity when mass is constant.

Therefore, doubling the velocity reduces the wavelength to half its original value.

Q5. Atomic Spectra | Difficult

How many spectral lines can be produced when an electron in a hydrogen atom, initially at n = 5, returns to the ground state through all possible transitions?

  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 10
  4. 15
View Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer: C. 10

The maximum number of spectral lines is calculated using:

N = n(n − 1)/2

For n = 5:

N = 5 × 4/2 = 10 spectral lines.

This formula counts all possible transitions between the five energy levels.

NEET Expert Tip: Remember these three important formulas:
  • Maximum electrons in a shell = 2n²
  • de Broglie wavelength = h/mv
  • Maximum spectral lines = n(n − 1)/2
Always check the allowed values of quantum numbers before selecting an answer.

NEET Chemistry MCQs: Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry - 28 Oct 2026

Practise these chemistry questions and answers on mole concept, empirical formula, stoichiometry, molarity and dilution. Each question has one correct answer with an explanation.

NEET Chemistry Class 11 5 MCQs

Q1. Mole Concept | Easy–Moderate

How many molecules are present in 0.5 mol of carbon dioxide (CO2)?

  1. 6.022 × 1023
  2. 3.011 × 1023
  3. 1.204 × 1024
  4. 1.505 × 1023
View Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Number of molecules = Number of moles × Avogadro constant.

= 0.5 × 6.022 × 1023 = 3.011 × 1023 molecules.

Q2. Empirical Formula | Moderate

A compound contains 40.0% carbon, 6.67% hydrogen and 53.33% oxygen by mass. What is its empirical formula?

  1. CHO
  2. CH2O
  3. C2H4O
  4. CH4O
View Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Assume the compound has a mass of 100 g.

  • C: 40/12 ≈ 3.33 mol
  • H: 6.67/1 = 6.67 mol
  • O: 53.33/16 ≈ 3.33 mol

Divide each value by the smallest value, 3.33. The ratio is approximately 1 : 2 : 1. Therefore, the empirical formula is CH2O.

Q3. Stoichiometry and Limiting Reagent | Moderate–Hard

Nitrogen reacts with hydrogen according to the equation:

N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3

If 2 mol of N2 reacts with 5 mol of H2, what is the maximum amount of NH3 that can form, assuming complete reaction of the limiting reagent?

  1. 2 mol
  2. 3 mol
  3. 10/3 mol
  4. 4 mol
View Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer: C

Two moles of N2 require 6 mol of H2, but only 5 mol of H2 is available. Therefore, H2 is the limiting reagent.

From the balanced equation, 3 mol of H2 produces 2 mol of NH3.

NH3 formed = 5 × 2/3 = 10/3 mol.

Q4. Molarity | Moderate

What is the molarity of a solution prepared by dissolving 5.85 g of NaCl in water to make a final solution volume of 500 mL? The molar mass of NaCl is 58.5 g mol−1.

  1. 0.10 M
  2. 0.20 M
  3. 0.50 M
  4. 1.00 M
View Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Moles of NaCl = 5.85/58.5 = 0.10 mol.

Solution volume = 500 mL = 0.500 L.

Molarity = moles of solute / volume of solution in litres = 0.10/0.500 = 0.20 M.

Q5. Dilution of Solutions | Moderate

A student takes 10 mL of a 2.0 M NaOH solution and dilutes it with water to a final volume of 250 mL. What is the molarity of the diluted solution?

  1. 0.04 M
  2. 0.08 M
  3. 0.20 M
  4. 0.50 M
View Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer: B

Apply the dilution equation: M1V1 = M2V2.

M2 = (2.0 × 10)/250 = 0.08 M.

Dilution decreases concentration, but the number of moles of NaOH remains constant.

NEET Expert Tip: In numerical questions, convert the volume into litres before calculating molarity. For limiting-reagent problems, compare the available reactants with their mole ratios in the balanced equation.

NEET Chemistry – Top 50 Questions (Set 5) - 27 Mar 2026
Elite Level Final Practice

1. Which of the following has highest ionization energy?

  • A) Li
  • B) Be
  • C) B
  • D) C

2. Which of the following is most stable conjugate base?

  • A) CH₃⁻
  • B) C₆H₅O⁻
  • C) OH⁻
  • D) NH₂⁻

3. Which of the following has highest bond angle?

  • A) NH₃
  • B) H₂O
  • C) CH₄
  • D) BF₃

4. Which compound undergoes fastest SN1 reaction?

  • A) CH₃Cl
  • B) C₂H₅Cl
  • C) (CH₃)₂CHCl
  • D) (CH₃)₃CCl

5. Which of the following has highest electron gain enthalpy?

  • A) F
  • B) Cl
  • C) Br
  • D) I
Answer Key
  1. D
  2. B
  3. D
  4. D
  5. B
Expert Tip – Final Polishing

Final NEET rules: Across period → ionization energy increases (C highest here). Resonance stabilizes conjugate base (phenoxide ion). BF₃ is trigonal planar → 120° highest angle. SN1 fastest in tertiary carbocation. Chlorine has highest electron affinity. These crack last-level chem mcq.

NEET Chemistry – Top 50 Questions (Set 4) - 26 Mar 2026
Ultimate Level NEET Practice

1. Which of the following has highest hydration enthalpy?

  • A) Na⁺
  • B) Mg²⁺
  • C) Al³⁺
  • D) K⁺

2. Which of the following is most stable radical?

  • A) CH₃•
  • B) Primary radical
  • C) Secondary radical
  • D) Tertiary radical

3. Which of the following has highest bond dissociation energy?

  • A) F₂
  • B) Cl₂
  • C) Br₂
  • D) I₂

4. Which of the following is most acidic?

  • A) CH₃OH
  • B) CH₃COOH
  • C) C₆H₅OH
  • D) H₂O

5. Which of the following has maximum entropy?

  • A) Solid
  • B) Liquid
  • C) Gas
  • D) Plasma
Answer Key
  1. C
  2. D
  3. B
  4. B
  5. C
Expert Tip – Ultimate NEET Tricks

Final NEET shortcuts: Higher charge + smaller size → highest hydration enthalpy. Radical stability: 3° > 2° > 1° > methyl. Cl₂ has strongest bond among halogens. Carboxylic acid strongest among given. Entropy: Gas > Liquid > Solid. These solve toughest chem mcq in exam.

NEET Chemistry – Top 50 Questions (Set 3) - 25 Mar 2026
Final Level NEET Practice

1. Which of the following has maximum bond order?

  • A) O₂
  • B) O₂⁺
  • C) O₂⁻
  • D) O₂²⁻

2. Which of the following is most basic?

  • A) NH₃
  • B) Aniline
  • C) CH₃NH₂
  • D) NH₂⁻

3. Which of the following is most stable carbocation?

  • A) CH₃⁺
  • B) C₂H₅⁺
  • C) Allyl carbocation
  • D) Benzyl carbocation

4. Which of the following has highest boiling point?

  • A) n-Butane
  • B) Isobutane
  • C) n-Pentane
  • D) Neopentane

5. Which of the following reaction is fastest?

  • A) SN2 of CH₃Br
  • B) SN2 of C₂H₅Br
  • C) SN2 of (CH₃)₃CBr
  • D) SN2 of secondary halide
Answer Key
  1. B
  2. D
  3. D
  4. C
  5. A
Expert Tip – Final NEET Revision

Use these final exam tricks: Remove electron → bond order increases. Strongest base = negative charge (NH₂⁻). Benzyl carbocation is highly stable due to resonance. Straight chain → higher boiling point. SN2 fastest in least steric hindrance (methyl). These help crack final chem mcq in NEET.

NEET Chemistry – Top 50 Questions (Set 2) - 24 Mar 2026
High Probability NEET Questions

1. Which of the following has highest lattice energy?

  • A) NaCl
  • B) MgO
  • C) KCl
  • D) CaO

2. Which of the following is most acidic?

  • A) Phenol
  • B) Ethanol
  • C) Acetic acid
  • D) Water

3. Which species has maximum number of lone pairs?

  • A) NH₃
  • B) H₂O
  • C) Cl⁻
  • D) O₂

4. Which compound shows optical isomerism?

  • A) CH₃CH₂OH
  • B) CH₃CHO
  • C) CH₃CHBrCl
  • D) CH₄

5. Which of the following is a strong oxidizing agent?

  • A) H₂
  • B) O₃
  • C) CO
  • D) CH₄
Answer Key
  1. B
  2. C
  3. C
  4. C
  5. B
Expert Tip – NEET High Probability

Use these NEET tricks: Higher charge + smaller size → higher lattice energy (MgO). Carboxylic acids are strongest among given. Ions have more lone pairs (Cl⁻). Chiral carbon → optical isomerism. Ozone is a strong oxidizing agent. These help solve tough chem mcq fast.

NEET Chemistry – Top 50 Questions (Set 1) - 23 Mar 2026
High Probability NEET Questions

1. Which of the following has maximum boiling point?

  • A) CH₄
  • B) NH₃
  • C) H₂O
  • D) HF

2. The hybridisation of carbon in CO₂ is:

  • A) sp
  • B) sp²
  • C) sp³
  • D) dsp²

3. Which of the following is strongest reducing agent?

  • A) Na
  • B) Mg
  • C) Al
  • D) Zn

4. Which gas is evolved in the reaction of Zn with dilute HCl?

  • A) O₂
  • B) H₂
  • C) CO₂
  • D) N₂

5. Which compound shows resonance?

  • A) CH₄
  • B) NH₃
  • C) Benzene
  • D) H₂O
Answer Key
  1. C
  2. A
  3. A
  4. B
  5. C
Expert Tip – Top NEET Questions

Focus on basics: Hydrogen bonding increases boiling point (H₂O highest). Linear molecules → sp hybridisation. Metals with low IE → strong reducing agents. Zn + HCl → H₂ gas. Resonance stabilizes molecules like benzene. These cover many chem mcq in NEET.

NEET Chemistry MCQ – Named Reactions (Set 1) - 22 Mar 2026
High Yield Organic Chemistry Questions

1. Which reaction converts amide to amine with one carbon less?

  • A) Cannizzaro reaction
  • B) Hoffmann bromamide reaction
  • C) Aldol condensation
  • D) Reimer-Tiemann reaction

2. Cannizzaro reaction occurs in:

  • A) Aldehydes with α-H
  • B) Ketones
  • C) Aldehydes without α-H
  • D) Alcohols

3. Reimer-Tiemann reaction introduces which group in phenol?

  • A) –COOH
  • B) –CHO
  • C) –OH
  • D) –NH₂

4. Aldol condensation requires:

  • A) No α-hydrogen
  • B) Presence of α-hydrogen
  • C) Strong acid only
  • D) No carbonyl group

5. Which reaction gives carboxylic acid from alkyl benzene?

  • A) Oxidation with KMnO₄
  • B) Reduction
  • C) Halogenation
  • D) Hydration
Answer Key
  1. B
  2. C
  3. B
  4. B
  5. A
Expert Tip – Named Reactions

Use this NEET memory trick: Hoffmann → carbon chain decreases. Cannizzaro → aldehyde without α-H. Aldol → needs α-H. Reimer-Tiemann → gives –CHO group. KMnO₄ → strong oxidizing agent. These solve most chem mcq from named reactions.

NEET Chemistry MCQ – Organic Reaction Mechanism (Set 2) - 21 Mar 2026
Advanced Concept + Reaction Questions

1. Which carbocation will undergo rearrangement?

  • A) CH₃⁺
  • B) CH₃CH₂⁺
  • C) CH₃CH₂CH₂⁺
  • D) (CH₃)₃C⁺

2. Which reaction follows Markovnikov’s rule?

  • A) Addition of HBr to alkene
  • B) Free radical halogenation
  • C) SN2 reaction
  • D) Elimination reaction

3. Which intermediate is most stable?

  • A) CH₃⁻
  • B) CH₃CH₂⁻
  • C) (CH₃)₃C⁻
  • D) CH₃CH₂CH₂⁻

4. In elimination reactions, major product is formed according to:

  • A) Markovnikov rule
  • B) Saytzeff rule
  • C) Anti-Markovnikov rule
  • D) Huckel rule

5. Which reagent gives anti-Markovnikov addition?

  • A) HBr
  • B) HCl
  • C) HBr in presence of peroxide
  • D) H₂SO₄
Answer Key
  1. C
  2. A
  3. A
  4. B
  5. C
Expert Tip – Organic Mechanism Advanced

Use these NEET tricks: Carbocation rearranges to more stable form. Markovnikov → more substituted carbon gets H. Saytzeff → more substituted alkene forms. Peroxide effect gives anti-Markovnikov addition. Carbanion stability is opposite of carbocation. These concepts crack advanced chem mcq easily.

NEET Chemistry MCQ – Organic Reaction Mechanism (Set 1) - 20 Mar 2026
Concept + Mechanism Based Questions

1. Which carbocation is most stable?

  • A) CH₃⁺
  • B) C₂H₅⁺
  • C) (CH₃)₂CH⁺
  • D) (CH₃)₃C⁺

2. SN2 reactions are favored by:

  • A) Tertiary halides
  • B) Secondary halides
  • C) Primary halides
  • D) Aromatic halides

3. Which intermediate is formed in SN1 reaction?

  • A) Free radical
  • B) Carbocation
  • C) Carbanion
  • D) Ion pair

4. Which effect stabilizes carbocation?

  • A) −I effect
  • B) +I effect
  • C) −M effect
  • D) −H effect

5. Which reaction proceeds via free radical mechanism?

  • A) SN1
  • B) SN2
  • C) Halogenation of alkanes
  • D) Esterification
Answer Key
  1. D
  2. C
  3. B
  4. B
  5. C
Expert Tip – Organic Mechanism

Use these NEET rules: Carbocation stability: 3° > 2° > 1° > CH₃. SN1 → carbocation formation. SN2 → single step (backside attack). +I effect stabilizes positive charge. Free radical reactions occur in halogenation. These solve most chem mcq from organic mechanism.

NEET Chemistry MCQ – Periodic Table & Trends (Set 2) - 19 Mar 2026
Advanced Concept Questions

1. Which of the following has the smallest atomic radius?

  • A) Na
  • B) Mg
  • C) Al
  • D) Cl

2. Which element has highest first ionization energy?

  • A) B
  • B) C
  • C) N
  • D) O

3. Which of the following is most metallic?

  • A) Li
  • B) Na
  • C) K
  • D) Rb

4. Electron affinity is lowest for:

  • A) F
  • B) Cl
  • C) Br
  • D) N

5. Which of the following has highest electronegativity?

  • A) F
  • B) Cl
  • C) Br
  • D) I
Answer Key
  1. D
  2. C
  3. D
  4. D
  5. A
Expert Tip – Periodic Trends Advanced

Use these NEET tricks: Smallest size → top right (Cl here). Nitrogen has highest IE due to half-filled stability. Metallic character increases down group. Nitrogen has very low electron affinity due to stability. Fluorine always highest electronegativity. These tricks crack tricky chem mcq easily.

NEET Chemistry MCQ – Periodic Table & Trends (Set 1) - 18 Mar 2026
Concept + Trend Based Questions

1. Which of the following has the highest atomic radius?

  • A) Na
  • B) Mg
  • C) Al
  • D) Si

2. Ionization energy increases across a period due to:

  • A) Increase in atomic size
  • B) Increase in nuclear charge
  • C) Decrease in electrons
  • D) Shielding effect increases

3. Which element has highest electronegativity?

  • A) Oxygen
  • B) Nitrogen
  • C) Fluorine
  • D) Chlorine

4. Metallic character:

  • A) Increases across period
  • B) Decreases down group
  • C) Decreases across period
  • D) Remains constant

5. Which has highest electron affinity?

  • A) Fluorine
  • B) Chlorine
  • C) Oxygen
  • D) Nitrogen
Answer Key
  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. C
  5. B
Expert Tip – Periodic Trends

Use this NEET shortcut: Across period → size ↓, ionization energy ↑. Down group → size ↑. Fluorine = highest electronegativity. Chlorine = highest electron affinity. These rules solve most chem mcq quickly.

NEET Chemistry MCQ – Equilibrium (Set 2) - 17 Mar 2026
Advanced Numerical + Concept Questions

1. The pH of a 0.01 M HCl solution is:

  • A) 1
  • B) 2
  • C) 3
  • D) 12

2. If Ka = 1 × 10⁻⁵, the pKa value is:

  • A) 5
  • B) 4
  • C) 6
  • D) 7

3. A buffer solution contains equal concentrations of weak acid and its salt. The pH of solution will be:

  • A) Greater than pKa
  • B) Less than pKa
  • C) Equal to pKa
  • D) Zero

4. If Kw = 1 × 10⁻¹⁴, then pKw is:

  • A) 7
  • B) 14
  • C) 1
  • D) 0

5. For reaction: A ⇌ B, if Kc = 1, then:

  • A) Reaction favors reactants
  • B) Reaction favors products
  • C) Both present equally
  • D) Reaction stops
Answer Key
  1. B
  2. A
  3. C
  4. B
  5. C
Expert Tip – Equilibrium Advanced

Use these NEET tricks: pH = −log[H⁺]. pKa = −log Ka. Buffer: when acid = salt → pH = pKa. pKw at 25°C = 14. Kc = 1 → both reactants and products present equally. These help solve advanced chem mcq fast.

NEET Chemistry MCQ – Equilibrium (Set 1) - 16 Mar 2026
Concept + Application Questions

1. For the reaction: N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃, the expression for Kc is:

  • A) [NH₃]² / ([N₂][H₂]³)
  • B) ([N₂][H₂]³) / [NH₃]²
  • C) [NH₃] / ([N₂][H₂])
  • D) [NH₃]² / ([N₂]³[H₂])

2. Increasing pressure shifts equilibrium towards:

  • A) Side with more moles of gas
  • B) Side with fewer moles of gas
  • C) No effect
  • D) Side with more solids

3. The pH of a neutral solution at 25°C is:

  • A) 0
  • B) 14
  • C) 7
  • D) 1

4. If Qc > Kc, the reaction will proceed:

  • A) Forward
  • B) Backward
  • C) No reaction
  • D) Faster

5. Which of the following is a strong acid?

  • A) CH₃COOH
  • B) HCl
  • C) NH₃
  • D) H₂CO₃
Answer Key
  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. B
  5. B
Expert Tip – Equilibrium

Use these quick NEET rules: Kc = products / reactants (with powers). More pressure → fewer gas moles. Qc > Kc → reaction shifts backward. Strong acids fully dissociate (HCl). These rules solve most chem mcq from Equilibrium easily.

NEET Chemistry MCQ – Thermodynamics (Set 2) - 15 Mar 2026
Advanced Numerical + Concept Questions

1. If ΔU = 100 J and work done by system = 40 J, then heat absorbed (q) is:

  • A) 60 J
  • B) 100 J
  • C) 140 J
  • D) 40 J

2. For the reaction, ΔH = 50 kJ and ΔS = 100 J/K. At what temperature will ΔG = 0?

  • A) 500 K
  • B) 300 K
  • C) 200 K
  • D) 100 K

3. Which condition makes a reaction spontaneous at all temperatures?

  • A) ΔH > 0, ΔS > 0
  • B) ΔH < 0, ΔS < 0
  • C) ΔH < 0, ΔS > 0
  • D) ΔH > 0, ΔS < 0

4. The efficiency of a heat engine increases when:

  • A) Temperature difference increases
  • B) Temperature difference decreases
  • C) Pressure increases
  • D) Volume decreases

5. For an ideal gas expansion against vacuum, work done is:

  • A) Maximum
  • B) Minimum
  • C) Zero
  • D) Infinite
Answer Key
  1. C
  2. A
  3. C
  4. A
  5. C
Expert Tip – Thermodynamics Advanced

Use these NEET tricks: First law → q = ΔU + W. At ΔG = 0 → T = ΔH/ΔS. Always spontaneous → ΔH negative, ΔS positive. Free expansion → work = 0. These shortcuts solve tough chem mcq quickly.

NEET Chemistry MCQ – Thermodynamics (Set 1) - 14 Mar 2026
Concept + Formula Based Questions

1. For an exothermic reaction, the value of ΔH is:

  • A) Positive
  • B) Negative
  • C) Zero
  • D) Infinite

2. Which of the following is a state function?

  • A) Work
  • B) Heat
  • C) Internal energy
  • D) Path

3. The relation between ΔH and ΔU is:

  • A) ΔH = ΔU
  • B) ΔH = ΔU + PΔV
  • C) ΔH = ΔU − PΔV
  • D) ΔH = ΔU × V

4. If ΔG < 0, the reaction is:

  • A) Non-spontaneous
  • B) At equilibrium
  • C) Spontaneous
  • D) Impossible

5. Which process has ΔS > 0?

  • A) Freezing of water
  • B) Condensation
  • C) Sublimation
  • D) Compression of gas
Answer Key
  1. B
  2. C
  3. B
  4. C
  5. C
Expert Tip – Thermodynamics

Use these quick NEET rules: Exothermic → ΔH negative. State functions depend only on initial and final state. ΔG < 0 → spontaneous. Increase in disorder → ΔS positive. These basics solve most chem mcq from Thermodynamics.

NEET Chemistry MCQ – Thermodynamics (Set 1) - 13 Mar 2026
Concept + Formula Based Questions

1. For an exothermic reaction, the value of ΔH is:

  • A) Positive
  • B) Negative
  • C) Zero
  • D) Infinite

2. Which of the following is a state function?

  • A) Work
  • B) Heat
  • C) Internal energy
  • D) Path

3. The relation between ΔH and ΔU is:

  • A) ΔH = ΔU
  • B) ΔH = ΔU + PΔV
  • C) ΔH = ΔU − PΔV
  • D) ΔH = ΔU × V

4. If ΔG < 0, the reaction is:

  • A) Non-spontaneous
  • B) At equilibrium
  • C) Spontaneous
  • D) Impossible

5. Which process has ΔS > 0?

  • A) Freezing of water
  • B) Condensation
  • C) Sublimation
  • D) Compression of gas
Answer Key
  1. B
  2. C
  3. B
  4. C
  5. C
Expert Tip – Thermodynamics

Use these quick NEET rules: Exothermic → ΔH negative. State functions depend only on initial and final state. ΔG < 0 → spontaneous. Increase in disorder → ΔS positive. These basics solve most chem mcq from Thermodynamics.

NEET Chemistry MCQ – Chemical Bonding (Set 2) - 12 Mar 2026
Advanced Concept Questions

1. Which molecule has maximum number of lone pairs on central atom?

  • A) NH₃
  • B) H₂O
  • C) ClF₃
  • D) XeF₂

2. The shape of XeF₂ molecule is:

  • A) Linear
  • B) Bent
  • C) Trigonal planar
  • D) T-shaped

3. Which of the following has highest bond order?

  • A) O₂
  • B) O₂⁺
  • C) O₂⁻
  • D) O₂²⁻

4. Which molecule has sp² hybridisation?

  • A) NH₃
  • B) BF₃
  • C) CH₄
  • D) H₂O

5. Which species is diamagnetic?

  • A) O₂
  • B) NO
  • C) N₂
  • D) O₂⁻
Answer Key
  1. D
  2. A
  3. B
  4. B
  5. C
Expert Tip – Advanced Chemical Bonding

Use these NEET tricks: XeF₂ has 3 lone pairs → linear shape. Removing electron increases bond order (O₂⁺ highest). sp² = trigonal planar (BF₃). Diamagnetic = all electrons paired (N₂). These concepts solve advanced chem mcq easily.

NEET Chemistry MCQ – Chemical Bonding (Set 1) - 11 Mar 2026
Concept + Application Questions

1. Which of the following has the highest bond angle?

  • A) NH₃
  • B) H₂O
  • C) CH₄
  • D) CO₂

2. The hybridisation of nitrogen in NH₃ is:

  • A) sp
  • B) sp²
  • C) sp³
  • D) dsp²

3. Which molecule is polar?

  • A) CO₂
  • B) BF₃
  • C) CH₄
  • D) NH₃

4. Which type of bond is present in NaCl?

  • A) Covalent bond
  • B) Ionic bond
  • C) Hydrogen bond
  • D) Coordinate bond

5. Which molecule has lone pair on central atom affecting shape?

  • A) CH₄
  • B) CO₂
  • C) NH₃
  • D) BF₃
Answer Key
  1. D
  2. C
  3. D
  4. B
  5. C
Expert Tip – Chemical Bonding

Use this quick NEET rule: More lone pairs → smaller bond angle. Linear molecules like CO₂ have 180°. NH₃ is polar due to lone pair. Ionic bond forms between metal + non-metal. These rules solve most chem mcq from Chemical Bonding easily.

NEET Chemistry – Assertion & Reason Practice (Set 3) - 10 Mar 2026
Advanced Concept Questions

1. Assertion (A): Atomic radius decreases across a period.
Reason (R): Nuclear charge increases across the period.

  • A) Both A and R are true and R explains A
  • B) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
  • C) A is true but R is false
  • D) A is false but R is true

2. Assertion (A): Benzene is more stable than cyclohexatriene.
Reason (R): Benzene has resonance stabilization.

  • A) Both A and R are true and R explains A
  • B) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
  • C) A is true but R is false
  • D) A is false but R is true

3. Assertion (A): Helium has the highest ionization energy among all elements.
Reason (R): Helium has very small atomic size and stable electronic configuration.

  • A) Both A and R are true and R explains A
  • B) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
  • C) A is true but R is false
  • D) A is false but R is true

4. Assertion (A): Addition of catalyst increases rate of reaction.
Reason (R): Catalyst lowers activation energy of reaction.

  • A) Both A and R are true and R explains A
  • B) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
  • C) A is true but R is false
  • D) A is false but R is true

5. Assertion (A): Phenol is acidic in nature.
Reason (R): Phenoxide ion is stabilized by resonance.

  • A) Both A and R are true and R explains A
  • B) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
  • C) A is true but R is false
  • D) A is false but R is true
Answer Key
  1. A
  2. A
  3. A
  4. A
  5. A
Expert Tip – NEET Assertion Reason

In many NEET chemistry questions and answers based on assertion–reason, both statements are correct. The real task is checking if the reason actually explains the assertion. Always evaluate both statements separately before choosing option A.

NEET Chemistry – Assertion & Reason Practice (Set 3) - 09 Mar 2026
Advanced Concept Questions

1. Assertion (A): Atomic radius decreases across a period.
Reason (R): Nuclear charge increases across the period.

  • A) Both A and R are true and R explains A
  • B) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
  • C) A is true but R is false
  • D) A is false but R is true

2. Assertion (A): Benzene is more stable than cyclohexatriene.
Reason (R): Benzene has resonance stabilization.

  • A) Both A and R are true and R explains A
  • B) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
  • C) A is true but R is false
  • D) A is false but R is true

3. Assertion (A): Helium has the highest ionization energy among all elements.
Reason (R): Helium has very small atomic size and stable electronic configuration.

  • A) Both A and R are true and R explains A
  • B) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
  • C) A is true but R is false
  • D) A is false but R is true

4. Assertion (A): Addition of catalyst increases rate of reaction.
Reason (R): Catalyst lowers activation energy of reaction.

  • A) Both A and R are true and R explains A
  • B) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
  • C) A is true but R is false
  • D) A is false but R is true

5. Assertion (A): Phenol is acidic in nature.
Reason (R): Phenoxide ion is stabilized by resonance.

  • A) Both A and R are true and R explains A
  • B) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
  • C) A is true but R is false
  • D) A is false but R is true
Answer Key
  1. A
  2. A
  3. A
  4. A
  5. A
Expert Tip – NEET Assertion Reason

In many NEET chemistry questions and answers based on assertion–reason, both statements are correct. The real task is checking if the reason actually explains the assertion. Always evaluate both statements separately before choosing option A.

NEET Chemistry – Assertion & Reason Practice (Set 2) - 08 Mar 2026
Advanced Concept Questions

1. Assertion (A): Transition metals form coloured compounds.
Reason (R): d–d electronic transitions occur in transition metal ions.

  • A) Both A and R are true and R explains A
  • B) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
  • C) A is true but R is false
  • D) A is false but R is true

2. Assertion (A): Noble gases were once called inert gases.
Reason (R): They have completely filled valence shells.

  • A) Both A and R are true and R explains A
  • B) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
  • C) A is true but R is false
  • D) A is false but R is true

3. Assertion (A): Graphite conducts electricity.
Reason (R): Each carbon atom in graphite forms three σ bonds and one delocalised π electron.

  • A) Both A and R are true and R explains A
  • B) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
  • C) A is true but R is false
  • D) A is false but R is true

4. Assertion (A): Increasing pressure favors the side with fewer moles of gas in equilibrium reactions.
Reason (R): System tries to reduce pressure according to Le Chatelier’s principle.

  • A) Both A and R are true and R explains A
  • B) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
  • C) A is true but R is false
  • D) A is false but R is true

5. Assertion (A): Alcohols have higher boiling points than ethers of similar molecular mass.
Reason (R): Alcohols form intermolecular hydrogen bonds.

  • A) Both A and R are true and R explains A
  • B) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
  • C) A is true but R is false
  • D) A is false but R is true
Answer Key
  1. A
  2. A
  3. A
  4. A
  5. A
Expert Tip – NEET Assertion Reason

In many NEET assertion–reason chem mcq, both statements are correct. The trick is checking **whether the reason actually explains the assertion**. Always read the reason carefully before selecting option A.

NEET Chemistry – Assertion & Reason Practice (Set 1) - 07 Mar 2026
High Difficulty Concept Questions

1. Assertion (A): Ionic compounds conduct electricity in molten state.
Reason (R): Ions become mobile in molten state.

  • A) Both A and R are true and R explains A
  • B) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
  • C) A is true but R is false
  • D) A is false but R is true

2. Assertion (A): Fluorine shows only −1 oxidation state.
Reason (R): Fluorine has highest electronegativity.

  • A) Both A and R are true and R explains A
  • B) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
  • C) A is true but R is false
  • D) A is false but R is true

3. Assertion (A): Benzene undergoes substitution reactions rather than addition.
Reason (R): Addition reactions destroy aromatic stability.

  • A) Both A and R are true and R explains A
  • B) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
  • C) A is true but R is false
  • D) A is false but R is true

4. Assertion (A): Increasing temperature increases rate of reaction.
Reason (R): Activation energy decreases with temperature.

  • A) Both A and R are true and R explains A
  • B) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
  • C) A is true but R is false
  • D) A is false but R is true

5. Assertion (A): Buffer solutions resist change in pH.
Reason (R): They contain weak acid/base and their conjugate salt.

  • A) Both A and R are true and R explains A
  • B) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
  • C) A is true but R is false
  • D) A is false but R is true
Answer Key
  1. A
  2. A
  3. A
  4. C
  5. A
Expert Tip – Assertion Reason Questions

For assertion–reason chem mcq, always check logic order: Step 1: Is assertion correct? Step 2: Is reason correct? Step 3: Does reason actually explain the assertion? Most NEET traps occur when both statements are true but unrelated.

High Difficulty NEET Chemistry – Concept Set 4 - 06 Mar 2026
Ultra Concept Integration Practice

1. Which molecule has zero dipole moment?

  • A) NH3
  • B) H2O
  • C) CO2
  • D) SO2

2. Which species has maximum bond dissociation energy?

  • A) F2
  • B) Cl2
  • C) Br2
  • D) I2

3. In the reaction: CH3CHO + HCN → Product the reaction type is:

  • A) Electrophilic substitution
  • B) Nucleophilic addition
  • C) Elimination
  • D) Free radical reaction

4. Which of the following ions has maximum hydration enthalpy?

  • A) Na+
  • B) Mg2+
  • C) K+
  • D) Ca2+

5. The hybridisation of carbon atoms in acetylene (C2H2) is:

  • A) sp3
  • B) sp2
  • C) sp
  • D) dsp2
Answer Key
  1. C
  2. B
  3. B
  4. B
  5. C
Expert Tip – Ultra Concept Booster

Use these quick NEET shortcuts: Linear molecules like CO2 have zero dipole moment. Cl–Cl bond is strongest among halogens due to optimal size. Carbonyl compounds undergo nucleophilic addition. Smaller ion + higher charge → higher hydration enthalpy. Triple bond carbon atoms are always sp hybridised. These tricks help solve ultra-level chem mcq quickly in NEET.

High Difficulty NEET Chemistry – Concept Set 3 - 05 Mar 2026
Advanced Multi-Chapter Integration

1. The number of radial nodes in 3p orbital is:

  • A) 0
  • B) 1
  • C) 2
  • D) 3

2. Which complex will show maximum crystal field stabilisation energy (CFSE) in octahedral field?

  • A) d3
  • B) d5 (high spin)
  • C) d8
  • D) d10

3. If Kp > Kc for a gaseous reaction, then:

  • A) Δn = 0
  • B) Δn < 0
  • C) Δn > 0
  • D) Temperature is zero

4. The major product of nitration of toluene is:

  • A) m-Nitrotoluene
  • B) o-Nitrotoluene
  • C) p-Nitrotoluene
  • D) Equal mixture of all three

5. A buffer solution resists change in pH because:

  • A) It is neutral
  • B) It contains strong acid and strong base
  • C) It contains weak acid/base and its conjugate salt
  • D) It has high concentration only
Answer Key
  1. B
  2. A
  3. C
  4. B
  5. C
Expert Tip – Deep Concept Booster

Remember these high-level shortcuts: Radial nodes = n − l − 1. d3 has maximum CFSE in octahedral field. Kp = Kc(RT)^Δn → if Kp > Kc, then Δn > 0. Toluene is ortho-para directing. Buffer = weak acid/base + its salt. These tricks help solve tough chem mcq under time pressure in NEET.

High Difficulty NEET Chemistry – Concept Set 1 - 04 Mar 2026
Advanced Level Concept Practice

1. The magnetic moment (spin only) of Mn2+ ion is:

  • A) 4.90 BM
  • B) 5.92 BM
  • C) 3.87 BM
  • D) 6.63 BM

2. For the reaction: N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g), if temperature increases, the equilibrium shifts towards:

  • A) N2O4
  • B) NO2
  • C) No change
  • D) Depends on pressure

3. Which compound shows maximum acidity?

  • A) CH3COOH
  • B) ClCH2COOH
  • C) Cl2CHCOOH
  • D) CCl3COOH

4. The correct order of bond order is:

  • A) O2+ > O2 > O2−
  • B) O2− > O2 > O2+
  • C) O2 > O2+ > O2−
  • D) O2 > O2− > O2+

5. In SN1 reaction, rate depends on:

  • A) Concentration of nucleophile only
  • B) Concentration of substrate only
  • C) Both substrate and nucleophile
  • D) Solvent only
Answer Key
  1. B
  2. B
  3. D
  4. A
  5. B
Expert Tip – High Difficulty NEET Concepts

Use these advanced NEET shortcuts: Mn2+ = 3d5 → 5 unpaired → μ = √n(n+2) = 5.92 BM. N2O4 ⇌ 2NO2 is endothermic forward. More Cl → more –I effect → stronger acid. Remove electron → bond order increases. SN1 rate = k[substrate]. These tricks help crack tough chem mcq in NEET with confidence.

High Difficulty NEET Chemistry – Concept Set 1 - 03 Mar 2026
Advanced Level Concept Practice

1. The magnetic moment (spin only) of Mn2+ ion is:

  • A) 4.90 BM
  • B) 5.92 BM
  • C) 3.87 BM
  • D) 6.63 BM

2. For the reaction: N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g), if temperature increases, the equilibrium shifts towards:

  • A) N2O4
  • B) NO2
  • C) No change
  • D) Depends on pressure

3. Which compound shows maximum acidity?

  • A) CH3COOH
  • B) ClCH2COOH
  • C) Cl2CHCOOH
  • D) CCl3COOH

4. The correct order of bond order is:

  • A) O2+ > O2 > O2−
  • B) O2− > O2 > O2+
  • C) O2 > O2+ > O2−
  • D) O2 > O2− > O2+

5. In SN1 reaction, rate depends on:

  • A) Concentration of nucleophile only
  • B) Concentration of substrate only
  • C) Both substrate and nucleophile
  • D) Solvent only
Answer Key
  1. B
  2. B
  3. D
  4. A
  5. B
Expert Tip – High Difficulty NEET Concepts

Use these advanced NEET shortcuts: Mn2+ = 3d5 → 5 unpaired → μ = √n(n+2) = 5.92 BM. N2O4 ⇌ 2NO2 is endothermic forward. More Cl → more –I effect → stronger acid. Remove electron → bond order increases. SN1 rate = k[substrate]. These tricks help crack tough chem mcq in NEET with confidence.

NEET Chemistry Mixed Revision – Set 1 -02 Mar 2026
Class 11 + 12 Combined Practice

1. The number of unpaired electrons in Fe3+ (Z = 26) is:

  • A) 3
  • B) 4
  • C) 5
  • D) 6

2. Which solution will have highest osmotic pressure at same concentration?

  • A) Glucose
  • B) Urea
  • C) NaCl
  • D) AlCl3

3. Which compound will give positive Tollen’s test?

  • A) Acetone
  • B) Ethanal
  • C) Benzophenone
  • D) Propanone

4. The correct order of atomic radius is:

  • A) Na > Mg > Al
  • B) Al > Mg > Na
  • C) Mg > Na > Al
  • D) Na > Al > Mg

5. For a first order reaction, if half-life is 20 minutes, time required for 75% completion is:

  • A) 20 min
  • B) 30 min
  • C) 40 min
  • D) 60 min
Answer Key
  1. C
  2. D
  3. B
  4. A
  5. C
Expert Tip – Mixed NEET Set

Use these quick NEET shortcuts: Fe3+ = 3d5 → 5 unpaired electrons. More ions → more osmotic pressure (AlCl3 gives 4 particles). Tollen’s test → aldehyde only. Across period → atomic size decreases. 75% completion in first order = 2 half-lives. These tricks solve mixed chem mcq fast in NEET.

Revision Cycle – Class 12 Chemistry MCQs - 01 Mar 2026
Chapter: Chemistry in Everyday Life

1. Which of the following is an analgesic?

  • A) Penicillin
  • B) Paracetamol
  • C) Chloramphenicol
  • D) Streptomycin

2. Ranitidine is used as:

  • A) Antacid
  • B) Antibiotic
  • C) Antihistamine
  • D) Tranquilizer

3. Which of the following is a biodegradable detergent?

  • A) Branched alkyl benzene sulphonate
  • B) Linear alkyl benzene sulphonate
  • C) Sodium dodecyl benzene
  • D) Plastic polymer

4. Which drug is used to reduce anxiety?

  • A) Aspirin
  • B) Penicillin
  • C) Diazepam
  • D) Morphine

5. Artificial sweetener that contains chlorine is:

  • A) Saccharin
  • B) Aspartame
  • C) Sucralose
  • D) Glucose
Answer Key
  1. B
  2. C
  3. B
  4. C
  5. C
Expert Tip – Chemistry in Everyday Life

Use this simple exam memory set: Analgesic → pain relief (Paracetamol). Antibiotic → kills bacteria. Tranquilizer → reduces anxiety. Linear detergents are biodegradable. Sucralose contains chlorine. This chapter gives direct theory-based chem mcq, so revise once and score easy marks in NEET and CET.

Revision Cycle – Class 12 Chemistry MCQs - 28 Feb 2026
Chapter: Polymers

1. Which of the following is an addition polymer?

  • A) Nylon-6,6
  • B) Terylene
  • C) Polyethylene
  • D) Bakelite

2. Natural rubber is a polymer of:

  • A) Ethene
  • B) Isoprene
  • C) Styrene
  • D) Vinyl chloride

3. Bakelite is formed by condensation of:

  • A) Phenol and formaldehyde
  • B) Ethene and benzene
  • C) Styrene and butadiene
  • D) Caprolactam

4. Which type of polymer is nylon-6,6?

  • A) Addition polymer
  • B) Condensation polymer
  • C) Natural polymer
  • D) Elastomer

5. Vulcanisation of rubber involves addition of:

  • A) Oxygen
  • B) Nitrogen
  • C) Sulphur
  • D) Chlorine
Answer Key
  1. C
  2. B
  3. A
  4. B
  5. C
Expert Tip – Polymers

Use this simple exam memory trick: Addition polymer → double bond monomer. Nylon and terylene are condensation polymers. Natural rubber is polyisoprene. Vulcanisation uses sulphur to increase strength. These points solve most chem mcq from Polymers in NEET, JEE and MHT-CET.

Revision Cycle – Class 12 Chemistry MCQs - 27 Feb 2026
Chapter: Biomolecules

1. Which of the following is a reducing sugar?

  • A) Sucrose
  • B) Glucose
  • C) Starch
  • D) Cellulose

2. The peptide bond in proteins is formed between:

  • A) Two –NH2 groups
  • B) Two –COOH groups
  • C) –COOH and –NH2 groups
  • D) –OH groups

3. Which vitamin is water soluble?

  • A) Vitamin A
  • B) Vitamin D
  • C) Vitamin E
  • D) Vitamin C

4. The base present in RNA but absent in DNA is:

  • A) Thymine
  • B) Adenine
  • C) Uracil
  • D) Cytosine

5. Which level of protein structure is stabilised by hydrogen bonds?

  • A) Primary
  • B) Secondary
  • C) Tertiary
  • D) Quaternary
Answer Key
  1. B
  2. C
  3. D
  4. C
  5. B
Expert Tip – Biomolecules

Use this easy exam memory set: Reducing sugar → free aldehyde/ketone group. Peptide bond forms between –COOH and –NH2. Water soluble vitamins are B and C. RNA has Uracil instead of thymine. Secondary structure is stabilised by hydrogen bonding. These points solve most chem mcq from Biomolecules in NEET, JEE and MHT-CET.

Revision Cycle – Class 12 Chemistry MCQs - 26 Feb 2026
Chapter: Amines

1. Which amine is most basic in aqueous solution?

  • A) NH3
  • B) CH3NH2
  • C) (CH3)2NH
  • D) (CH3)3N

2. Aniline is less basic than methylamine because:

  • A) Larger molecular size
  • B) Lone pair involved in resonance
  • C) Absence of hydrogen bonding
  • D) Higher boiling point

3. Which reagent is used in Hinsberg test?

  • A) Benzene sulphonyl chloride
  • B) Tollen’s reagent
  • C) Fehling’s solution
  • D) Lucas reagent

4. Primary aromatic amines react with NaNO2 + HCl at 0–5°C to form:

  • A) Nitro compounds
  • B) Diazonium salts
  • C) Alcohols
  • D) Aldehydes

5. Which reaction converts amide to amine with one carbon less?

  • A) Hoffmann bromamide reaction
  • B) Cannizzaro reaction
  • C) Aldol reaction
  • D) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
Answer Key
  1. C
  2. B
  3. A
  4. B
  5. A
Expert Tip – Amines

Use this simple exam memory set: In aqueous solution: 2° > 1° > 3° > NH3. Aniline is less basic due to resonance. NaNO2 + HCl (cold) gives diazonium salt. Hoffmann reaction reduces carbon chain by one. These rules solve most chem mcq from Amines in NEET, JEE and MHT-CET.

Revision Cycle – Class 12 Chemistry MCQs - 25 Feb 2026
Chapter: Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

1. Which reagent distinguishes aldehydes from ketones?

  • A) Fehling’s solution
  • B) Grignard reagent
  • C) Sodium borohydride
  • D) Phosphorus pentachloride

2. Which of the following gives positive iodoform test?

  • A) Formaldehyde
  • B) Benzaldehyde
  • C) Acetone
  • D) Formic acid

3. Carboxylic acids are more acidic than alcohols due to:

  • A) Inductive effect only
  • B) Resonance stabilisation of carboxylate ion
  • C) Hydrogen bonding
  • D) Higher boiling point

4. Aldol condensation occurs in compounds having:

  • A) –COOH group
  • B) α-hydrogen
  • C) Aromatic ring
  • D) Ether linkage

5. Which compound undergoes Cannizzaro reaction?

  • A) Acetaldehyde
  • B) Propanone
  • C) Benzaldehyde
  • D) Acetone
Answer Key
  1. A
  2. C
  3. B
  4. B
  5. C
Expert Tip – Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids

Use this simple exam memory set: Aldehyde → positive Fehling’s/Tollen’s. Iodoform test means –COCH3 group. Carboxylic acid is acidic due to resonance. Aldol needs α-hydrogen. No α-H → Cannizzaro reaction. These rules solve most chem mcq from this chapter in NEET, JEE and MHT-CET.

Revision Cycle – Class 12 Chemistry MCQs - 24 Feb 2026
Chapter: Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers

1. Which alcohol reacts fastest with Lucas reagent?

  • A) Methanol
  • B) Ethanol
  • C) 2-Propanol
  • D) tert-Butanol

2. Phenol is more acidic than alcohol because:

  • A) Presence of –OH group
  • B) Hydrogen bonding
  • C) Resonance stabilisation of phenoxide ion
  • D) Higher molecular mass

3. Williamson’s synthesis is used for preparation of:

  • A) Alcohols
  • B) Ethers
  • C) Phenols
  • D) Aldehydes

4. Which of the following undergoes dehydration most easily?

  • A) Primary alcohol
  • B) Secondary alcohol
  • C) Tertiary alcohol
  • D) Methanol

5. Anisole on treatment with HI gives:

  • A) Phenol + Methyl iodide
  • B) Benzene + Methanol
  • C) Phenol + Iodine
  • D) Benzyl iodide
Answer Key
  1. D
  2. C
  3. B
  4. C
  5. A
Expert Tip – Alcohols, Phenols & Ethers

Use this easy memory trick: 3° alcohol reacts fastest (stable carbocation). Phenol is acidic due to resonance. Williamson synthesis gives ethers via SN2. Dehydration follows carbocation stability. These rules solve most chem mcq from this chapter in NEET, JEE and MHT-CET.

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Revision Cycle – Class 12 Chemistry MCQs - 23 Feb 2026
Chapter: Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

1. Which haloalkane undergoes SN1 reaction most easily?

  • A) CH3Cl
  • B) C2H5Cl
  • C) (CH3)3CCl
  • D) CH3CH2CH2Cl

2. Aryl halides are less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution because:

  • A) Strong C–X bond due to resonance
  • B) Weak C–X bond
  • C) Presence of sp3 carbon
  • D) Large atomic size

3. Which reagent is used to convert alcohol to alkyl chloride?

  • A) NaOH
  • B) PCl5
  • C) H2SO4
  • D) KMnO4

4. Which reaction mechanism is followed by primary haloalkanes?

  • A) SN1
  • B) SN2
  • C) E1
  • D) Rearrangement

5. Which of the following gives elimination reaction predominantly?

  • A) CH3Cl
  • B) C2H5Br
  • C) (CH3)3CBr
  • D) CH3F
Answer Key
  1. C
  2. A
  3. B
  4. B
  5. C
Expert Tip – Haloalkanes & Haloarenes

Use this simple exam rule: 3° → SN1, 1° → SN2. More stable carbocation means faster SN1. Aryl halides resist substitution due to resonance. Strong base with 3° haloalkane gives elimination. These shortcuts solve most chem mcq from this chapter in NEET, JEE and MHT-CET.

Revision Cycle – Class 12 Chemistry MCQs - 22 Feb 2026
Chapter: Coordination Compounds

1. The coordination number of cobalt in [Co(NH3)6]3+ is:

  • A) 3
  • B) 4
  • C) 6
  • D) 8

2. Which of the following is a bidentate ligand?

  • A) NH3
  • B) H2O
  • C) Cl−
  • D) C2O4 2−

3. Which type of isomerism is shown by [Co(NH3)5Cl]SO4?

  • A) Geometrical isomerism
  • B) Optical isomerism
  • C) Ionisation isomerism
  • D) Coordination isomerism

4. The hybridisation of central metal ion in [Ni(CN)4]2− is:

  • A) sp3
  • B) dsp2
  • C) sp2
  • D) d2sp3

5. Chelation increases the stability of coordination compounds due to:

  • A) Large size of ligand
  • B) Entropy increase
  • C) High electronegativity
  • D) Charge on metal ion
Answer Key
  1. C
  2. D
  3. C
  4. B
  5. B
Expert Tip – Coordination Compounds

Use this simple exam memory set: Coordination number = number of donor atoms. Oxalate is bidentate. Strong field ligands like CN− give dsp2 (square planar) complexes. Chelation increases stability due to entropy effect. These rules solve most chem mcq from Coordination Compounds in NEET, JEE and MHT-CET.

Revision Cycle – Class 12 Chemistry MCQs - 21 Feb 2026
Chapter: d- and f-Block Elements

1. Which property is shown by most transition metals?

  • A) Fixed oxidation state
  • B) Formation of coloured compounds
  • C) Low melting point
  • D) Non-metallic character

2. The main reason for variable oxidation states in transition metals is:

  • A) Large atomic size
  • B) Participation of (n−1)d and ns electrons
  • C) High electronegativity
  • D) Small nuclear charge

3. Which element is not considered a transition metal?

  • A) Iron
  • B) Copper
  • C) Zinc
  • D) Chromium

4. Lanthanoids show contraction because:

  • A) Increase in nuclear charge
  • B) Poor shielding by 4f electrons
  • C) Decrease in atomic mass
  • D) Increase in shielding effect

5. Which oxidation state is most stable for lanthanoids?

  • A) +1
  • B) +2
  • C) +3
  • D) +4
Answer Key
  1. B
  2. B
  3. C
  4. B
  5. C
Expert Tip – d- and f-Block

Remember this exam rule: Transition metals = coloured + variable oxidation states. Zinc is not a true transition metal because its d-orbital is full. Lanthanoid contraction happens due to poor shielding of 4f electrons. +3 is the most stable oxidation state for lanthanoids. These points solve most chem mcq from d- and f-block in NEET, JEE and MHT-CET.

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Revision Cycle – Class 12 Chemistry MCQs - 20 Feb 2026
Chapter: The p-Block Elements (Class 12)

1. Which noble gas forms the compound XeF4?

  • A) Neon
  • B) Argon
  • C) Xenon
  • D) Helium

2. The shape of XeF4 molecule is:

  • A) Tetrahedral
  • B) Square planar
  • C) Trigonal bipyramidal
  • D) Linear

3. Which acid is the strongest among the following?

  • A) HClO
  • B) HClO2
  • C) HClO3
  • D) HClO4

4. Which of the following shows maximum oxidising property?

  • A) F2
  • B) Cl2
  • C) Br2
  • D) I2

5. The +3 oxidation state is more stable than +5 for heavier elements of group 15 due to:

  • A) High electronegativity
  • B) Inert pair effect
  • C) Small atomic size
  • D) High ionisation energy
Answer Key
  1. C
  2. B
  3. D
  4. A
  5. B
Expert Tip – p-Block (Class 12)

Use this easy exam rule: More oxygen → stronger oxyacid. Fluorine is the strongest oxidising agent. Heavier p-block elements show inert pair effect. XeF4 is square planar due to two lone pairs. These shortcuts help solve most chem mcq from p-Block quickly in NEET, JEE and MHT-CET.

Revision Cycle – Class 12 Chemistry MCQs - 19 Feb 2026
Chapter: Metallurgy

1. The process of removing gangue from ore is called:

  • A) Roasting
  • B) Concentration
  • C) Calcination
  • D) Smelting

2. Roasting is carried out mainly for:

  • A) Sulphide ores
  • B) Carbonate ores
  • C) Oxide ores
  • D) Native ores

3. Which reducing agent is used in the extraction of iron in blast furnace?

  • A) Carbon monoxide
  • B) Hydrogen
  • C) Aluminium
  • D) Oxygen

4. In the Hall-Heroult process, cryolite is added to:

  • A) Increase melting point
  • B) Decrease melting point
  • C) Increase density
  • D) Remove impurities

5. Which metal is extracted by electrolytic reduction?

  • A) Iron
  • B) Copper
  • C) Aluminium
  • D) Zinc
Answer Key
  1. B
  2. A
  3. A
  4. B
  5. C
Expert Tip – Metallurgy

Use this simple memory trick: Roasting → Sulphide ore. Calcination → Carbonate ore. Blast furnace uses CO as reducing agent. Cryolite lowers melting point of alumina. Highly reactive metals need electrolysis. These points solve most chem mcq from Metallurgy in NEET, JEE and MHT-CET.

Revision Cycle – Class 12 Chemistry MCQs - 18 Feb 2026
Chapter: Surface Chemistry

1. Which of the following is an example of adsorption?

  • A) Dissolving sugar in water
  • B) Rusting of iron
  • C) Charcoal absorbing gases
  • D) Melting of ice

2. Physical adsorption is favoured by:

  • A) High temperature
  • B) Low pressure
  • C) High temperature and high pressure
  • D) Low temperature and high pressure

3. Which of the following is a lyophobic colloid?

  • A) Starch in water
  • B) Gelatin in water
  • C) Soap solution
  • D) Gold sol

4. The process used to purify colloidal solutions is called:

  • A) Distillation
  • B) Dialysis
  • C) Sublimation
  • D) Crystallisation

5. Which catalyst is used in the Haber process?

  • A) Platinum
  • B) Nickel
  • C) Iron
  • D) Copper
Answer Key
  1. C
  2. D
  3. D
  4. B
  5. C
Expert Tip – Surface Chemistry

Remember this exam trick: Adsorption happens on surface. Physical adsorption likes low temperature + high pressure. Lyophobic sols are unstable and easy to coagulate. Dialysis removes impurities from colloids. Iron catalyst is fixed for Haber process. These points solve most chem mcq from Surface Chemistry in NEET, JEE and MHT-CET.

Revision Cycle – Class 12 Chemistry MCQs - 17 Feb 2026
Chapter: Chemical Kinetics

1. The rate of a chemical reaction depends mainly on:

  • A) Initial concentration of reactants
  • B) Nature of reactants
  • C) Temperature
  • D) All of the above

2. For a first order reaction, the unit of rate constant (k) is:

  • A) mol L−1 s−1
  • B) s−1
  • C) L mol−1 s−1
  • D) mol−1 L s−1

3. The half-life of a first order reaction depends on:

  • A) Initial concentration
  • B) Temperature only
  • C) Rate constant only
  • D) Time of reaction

4. Which graph gives a straight line for a zero-order reaction?

  • A) Concentration vs time
  • B) log concentration vs time
  • C) 1 / concentration vs time
  • D) Rate vs concentration

5. A catalyst increases the rate of reaction by:

  • A) Increasing activation energy
  • B) Decreasing activation energy
  • C) Increasing enthalpy change
  • D) Shifting equilibrium
Answer Key
  1. D
  2. B
  3. C
  4. A
  5. B
Expert Tip – Chemical Kinetics

Remember this exam rule: Order ≠ molecularity. First order reactions have fixed half-life and unit of k as s−1. Zero order shows straight line for concentration vs time. Catalyst only lowers activation energy, it never changes equilibrium. These points help solve most chem mcq from Chemical Kinetics in JEE, NEET and MHT-CET.

Revision Cycle – Class 12 Chemistry MCQs - 16 Feb 2026
Chapter: Electrochemistry

1. The standard electrode potential of a cell is positive. This indicates that the cell reaction is:

  • A) Non-spontaneous
  • B) At equilibrium
  • C) Spontaneous
  • D) Very slow

2. In an electrochemical cell, oxidation always occurs at the:

  • A) Cathode
  • B) Anode
  • C) Salt bridge
  • D) Electrolyte

3. The unit of molar conductivity is:

  • A) S m−1
  • B) S m2 mol−1
  • C) Ω m
  • D) Ω−1 m−1

4. Which of the following increases the conductivity of an electrolyte solution?

  • A) Decrease in temperature
  • B) Increase in dilution
  • C) Decrease in number of ions
  • D) Increase in viscosity

5. According to Faraday’s first law of electrolysis, the mass of substance deposited is proportional to:

  • A) Voltage applied
  • B) Resistance of solution
  • C) Quantity of electricity passed
  • D) Time taken only
Answer Key
  1. C
  2. B
  3. B
  4. B
  5. C
Expert Tip – Electrochemistry

Remember this easy exam rule: Anode = Oxidation, Cathode = Reduction. Positive E° means the reaction is spontaneous. On dilution, ions move freely, so conductivity increases. For electrolysis, always think: More charge → more mass. These points crack most chem mcq from Electrochemistry in JEE, NEET and MHT-CET.

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