Revision Cycle – Class 11 Chemistry MCQs - 05 Feb 2026
Chapter: Chemical Bonding & Molecular Structure

1. Which molecule has zero dipole moment?

  • A) NH3
  • B) H2O
  • C) CO2
  • D) SO2

2. The shape of the ammonia (NH3) molecule is:

  • A) Tetrahedral
  • B) Trigonal planar
  • C) Trigonal pyramidal
  • D) Linear

3. Which type of hybridisation is present in carbon dioxide (CO2)?

  • A) sp
  • B) sp2
  • C) sp3
  • D) dsp2

4. Which bond is the strongest among the following?

  • A) Single bond
  • B) Double bond
  • C) Triple bond
  • D) Hydrogen bond

5. According to VSEPR theory, lone pair–lone pair repulsion is:

  • A) Less than bond pair–bond pair
  • B) Equal to bond pair–bond pair
  • C) Greater than bond pair–bond pair
  • D) Negligible
Answer Key
  1. C
  2. C
  3. A
  4. C
  5. C
Expert Tip – Chemical Bonding

Remember this exam rule: Lone pair repulsion > Bond pair repulsion. Shape depends on electron pairs, not atoms. Symmetrical molecules like CO2 have zero dipole moment. If you fix shape first, most chem mcq from this chapter become easy in JEE, NEET and MHT-CET.


Revision Cycle – Class 11 Chemistry MCQs - 04 Feb 2026
Chapter: Classification of Elements & Periodicity

1. Which element has the highest first ionisation energy among the following?

  • A) Beryllium
  • B) Boron
  • C) Carbon
  • D) Nitrogen

2. Atomic radius generally decreases across a period because:

  • A) Number of shells decreases
  • B) Nuclear charge increases
  • C) Shielding effect increases
  • D) Electronegativity decreases

3. Which element shows the most negative electron gain enthalpy?

  • A) Fluorine
  • B) Chlorine
  • C) Oxygen
  • D) Sulphur

4. The basic character of oxides increases in which direction of the periodic table?

  • A) Left to right in a period
  • B) Right to left in a period
  • C) Top to bottom in a group
  • D) Both B and C

5. Which of the following elements shows variable oxidation states most commonly?

  • A) Sodium
  • B) Magnesium
  • C) Aluminium
  • D) Iron
Answer Key
  1. D
  2. B
  3. B
  4. D
  5. D
Expert Tip – Periodicity (Easy Memory)

Use this simple exam rule: Across period → size ↓, energy ↑. Down group → size ↑, energy ↓. Chlorine beats fluorine in electron gain due to less crowding. Transition metals show variable oxidation states. These shortcuts help solve most chem mcq in JEE, NEET and MHT-CET quickly.


Revision Cycle – Class 11 Chemistry MCQs - 03 Feb 2026
Chapter: Structure of Atom

1. The maximum number of electrons that can be present in a subshell with l = 2 is:

  • A) 2
  • B) 6
  • C) 10
  • D) 14

2. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers represents a valid electron?

  • A) n = 2, l = 2, m = 0, s = +1/2
  • B) n = 3, l = 1, m = −1, s = −1/2
  • C) n = 1, l = 1, m = 0, s = +1/2
  • D) n = 2, l = 0, m = 1, s = −1/2

3. The number of orbitals present in the third shell (n = 3) is:

  • A) 3
  • B) 6
  • C) 9
  • D) 18

4. Which transition in a hydrogen atom will produce radiation of the highest energy?

  • A) n = 2 → n = 1
  • B) n = 3 → n = 2
  • C) n = 4 → n = 3
  • D) n = 5 → n = 4

5. According to Heisenberg uncertainty principle, it is impossible to accurately determine:

  • A) Charge and mass of an electron
  • B) Energy and speed of an electron
  • C) Position and momentum of an electron
  • D) Spin and size of an electron
Answer Key
  1. C
  2. B
  3. C
  4. A
  5. C
Expert Tip – Structure of Atom

Remember these three exam rules: Orbitals = n², Electrons = 2n², Higher fall → higher energy. Always check if l = 0 to (n − 1) before selecting quantum numbers. These rules solve most chem mcq from this chapter in JEE, NEET, and MHT-CET without calculation.


Revision Cycle – Class 11 Chemistry MCQs - 02 Feb 2026
Chapter: Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

1. How many moles of oxygen atoms are present in 8.8 g of carbon dioxide (CO2)?

  • A) 0.2 mol
  • B) 0.4 mol
  • C) 0.6 mol
  • D) 0.8 mol

2. The percentage by mass of hydrogen in water (H2O) is closest to:

  • A) 9%
  • B) 11%
  • C) 18%
  • D) 33%

3. Which of the following has the maximum number of significant figures?

  • A) 0.0025
  • B) 2.500
  • C) 250
  • D) 2.50 × 102

4. If the empirical formula of a compound is CH2 and its molar mass is 42 g mol−1, the molecular formula is:

  • A) C2H4
  • B) C3H6
  • C) C4H8
  • D) C6H12

5. Which of the following quantities is expressed in the SI unit mole?

  • A) Mass
  • B) Volume
  • C) Amount of substance
  • D) Density
Answer Key
  1. B
  2. A
  3. B
  4. B
  5. C
Expert Tip – Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

Use this simple rule for exams: Mass → Mole → Atoms. Always convert given mass into moles first. For formulas, remember: Molecular mass ÷ Empirical mass = multiplier. If you follow this order, most chem mcq from this chapter become easy in JEE, NEET, and MHT-CET.


NEET Chemistry MCQs – Chemistry in Everyday Life - 1 Feb 2026

1. Which of the following is an example of an analgesic?

  • A) Paracetamol
  • B) Penicillin
  • C) Chloramphenicol
  • D) Aspirin (as antacid)

2. Which drug is used to reduce acidity in the stomach?

  • A) Antibiotic
  • B) Antiseptic
  • C) Antacid
  • D) Analgesic

3. Which of the following is a broad spectrum antibiotic?

  • A) Penicillin
  • B) Streptomycin
  • C) Chloramphenicol
  • D) Sulphur

4. Which chemical is commonly used as an antiseptic?

  • A) Dettol
  • B) Soap
  • C) Urea
  • D) Glucose

5. Artificial sweeteners are used mainly because they:

  • A) Give more energy
  • B) Increase appetite
  • C) Have low calorie value
  • D) Act as preservatives
Answer Key
  1. A
  2. C
  3. C
  4. A
  5. C
Expert Tip – Chemistry in Everyday Life (Easy Memory)

Remember this simple NEET trick: Analgesic → pain relief, Antacid → acidity relief, Antibiotic → kills bacteria. Artificial sweeteners give sweetness without calories. This chapter gives direct chem mcq in exams, so read NCERT lines carefully and revise daily.


NEET Chemistry MCQs – Polymers - 31 Jan 2026

1. Which of the following is a natural polymer?

  • A) Nylon-6
  • B) Bakelite
  • C) Cellulose
  • D) PVC

2. Which polymer is formed by addition polymerisation?

  • A) Nylon-6,6
  • B) Terylene
  • C) Polythene
  • D) Bakelite

3. Which polymer is used to make non-stick cookware?

  • A) PVC
  • B) Teflon
  • C) Polystyrene
  • D) Nylon

4. Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer?

  • A) Polythene
  • B) PVC
  • C) Nylon
  • D) PHBV

5. Bakelite is an example of:

  • A) Elastomer
  • B) Thermoplastic
  • C) Thermosetting polymer
  • D) Fibre
Answer Key
  1. C
  2. C
  3. B
  4. D
  5. C
Expert Tip – Polymers (Easy Memory)

Remember this simple NEET rule: Addition polymer → one monomer. Condensation polymer → two monomers + water loss. Natural polymers come from plants or animals. Bakelite never melts again because it is thermosetting. Keep these points in mind and you can solve most chem mcq from Polymers easily.


NEET Chemistry MCQs – Amines - 30 Jan 2026

1. Which amine is the strongest base in aqueous solution?

  • A) Methylamine
  • B) Dimethylamine
  • C) Trimethylamine
  • D) Aniline

2. Which test is used to distinguish primary, secondary and tertiary amines?

  • A) Tollen’s test
  • B) Fehling’s test
  • C) Hinsberg test
  • D) Iodoform test

3. Which amine gives a positive carbylamine test?

  • A) Primary amine
  • B) Secondary amine
  • C) Tertiary amine
  • D) Aromatic nitro compound

4. Aniline is less basic than methylamine because:

  • A) Aniline has larger size
  • B) Lone pair is involved in resonance
  • C) Aniline is aromatic
  • D) Methylamine has no lone pair

5. Which compound is formed when aniline reacts with nitrous acid at 0–5°C?

  • A) Nitrobenzene
  • B) Phenol
  • C) Benzene diazonium chloride
  • D) Chlorobenzene
Answer Key
  1. B
  2. C
  3. A
  4. B
  5. C
Expert Tip – Amines (Easy Memory Rule)

Remember this simple NEET rule: 2° amine > 1° amine > 3° amine in basic strength in water. Only primary amines give carbylamine test. Aniline is weak because its lone pair joins the benzene ring. If you remember these three points, you can solve most chem mcq from Amines without confusion.


NEET Chemistry MCQs – Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids - 29 Jan 2026

1. Which compound gives a positive Tollens’ test?

  • A) Acetone
  • B) Benzophenone
  • C) Acetaldehyde
  • D) Acetic acid

2. Which functional group is present in carboxylic acids?

  • A) –CHO
  • B) –CO–
  • C) –COOH
  • D) –OH

3. Which compound shows the highest boiling point?

  • A) Methanal
  • B) Ethanol
  • C) Ethanoic acid
  • D) Propanone

4. Which reagent converts aldehydes into carboxylic acids?

  • A) NaBH4
  • B) PCC
  • C) Tollens’ reagent
  • D) KMnO4

5. Which compound does NOT show iodoform test?

  • A) Ethanol
  • B) Acetone
  • C) Acetaldehyde
  • D) Methanol
Answer Key
  1. C
  2. C
  3. C
  4. D
  5. D
Expert Tip – Aldehydes, Ketones & Carboxylic Acids

Remember this NEET rule: Aldehyde = Oxidation easy, Ketone = Oxidation hard. Carboxylic acids have the highest boiling point due to strong hydrogen bonding. If you remember Tollens’, Fehling’s, and iodoform tests clearly, you can solve most chem mcq from this chapter without confusion.


NEET Chemistry MCQs – Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers - 28 Jan 2026

1. Which alcohol shows the highest boiling point?

  • A) Methanol
  • B) Ethanol
  • C) Propan-1-ol
  • D) Propan-2-ol

2. Phenol is more acidic than ethanol because phenoxide ion is:

  • A) Less stable
  • B) Stabilized by resonance
  • C) Smaller in size
  • D) Neutral in nature

3. Which reagent converts phenol into tribromophenol?

  • A) Bromine water
  • B) Br2 in CCl4
  • C) HBr
  • D) PBr3

4. Which ether forms explosive peroxides on standing in air?

  • A) Diethyl ether
  • B) Dimethyl ether
  • C) Anisole
  • D) Phenyl ether

5. Which reaction is used to prepare ethers from alcohols?

  • A) Friedel–Crafts reaction
  • B) Williamson synthesis
  • C) Kolbe reaction
  • D) Reimer–Tiemann reaction
Answer Key
  1. C
  2. B
  3. A
  4. A
  5. B
Expert Note – Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers (NEET)

NEET often tests acidity order, boiling point trends, and named reactions from this chapter. Phenol is more acidic due to resonance stabilization. Primary alcohols show higher boiling points due to stronger hydrogen bonding. Williamson synthesis is the most important method to form ethers. Practice such chem mcq regularly to answer chemistry questions with confidence in the exam.


NEET Chemistry MCQs – Haloalkanes and Haloarenes - 27 Jan 2026

1. Which bond breaks during a nucleophilic substitution reaction in haloalkanes?

  • A) C–C bond
  • B) C–H bond
  • C) C–X bond
  • D) X–X bond

2. Which alkyl halide undergoes SN1 reaction most easily?

  • A) CH3Cl
  • B) C2H5Cl
  • C) (CH3)3CCl
  • D) CH3CH2CH2Cl

3. Which solvent favors the SN1 mechanism?

  • A) Hexane
  • B) Ether
  • C) Water
  • D) Benzene

4. Which halogen atom forms the strongest bond with carbon?

  • A) F
  • B) Cl
  • C) Br
  • D) I

5. Which compound is an example of a haloarene?

  • A) CH3Cl
  • B) C2H5Br
  • C) Chlorobenzene
  • D) CH2Cl2
Answer Key
  1. C
  2. C
  3. C
  4. A
  5. C
Expert Note – Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

In NEET chem mcq, this chapter tests reaction mechanism. Remember the order: tertiary > secondary > primary for SN1. Polar solvents support SN1 reactions. Strong C–F bond makes fluorides less reactive. Practice such chemistry questions and answers daily on GoPract.


NEET Chemistry MCQs – Hydrocarbons - 26 Jan 2026

1. Which hydrocarbon shows aromatic character?

  • A) Ethene
  • B) Ethyne
  • C) Benzene
  • D) Cyclohexane

2. Which reagent is used to distinguish between alkanes and alkenes?

  • A) FeCl3
  • B) Bromine water
  • C) Tollens reagent
  • D) Sodium metal

3. The general formula of alkynes is:

  • A) CnH2n+2
  • B) CnH2n
  • C) CnH2n−2
  • D) CnHn

4. Which reaction is shown by alkanes mainly?

  • A) Addition reaction
  • B) Elimination reaction
  • C) Substitution reaction
  • D) Polymerisation

5. Which hydrocarbon gives a sooty flame on burning?

  • A) Methane
  • B) Ethane
  • C) Ethene
  • D) Benzene
Answer Key
  1. C
  2. B
  3. C
  4. C
  5. D
Expert Note – Hydrocarbons (NEET)

In NEET chem mcq, hydrocarbons test basic concepts. Focus on general formula, reactions, and flame test. Aromatic compounds give sooty flame. Practice such chemistry questions and answers daily. This habit helps you answer chemistry questions with confidence in exam.


NEET Chemistry MCQs – General Organic Chemistry (GOC) - 25 Jan 2026

1. Which effect explains the permanent displacement of electrons in a covalent bond?

  • A) Inductive effect
  • B) Resonance effect
  • C) Hyperconjugation
  • D) Electromeric effect

2. Which carbocation is the most stable?

  • A) CH3+
  • B) C2H5+
  • C) (CH3)2CH+
  • D) (CH3)3C+

3. Which of the following shows a +I effect?

  • A) –NO2
  • B) –CN
  • C) –CH3
  • D) –COOH

4. Which species acts as a nucleophile?

  • A) BF3
  • B) AlCl3
  • C) OH
  • D) H+

5. Which type of reaction involves movement of a pair of electrons?

  • A) Free radical reaction
  • B) Electrophilic reaction
  • C) Nucleophilic reaction
  • D) Ionic reaction
Answer Key
  1. B
  2. D
  3. C
  4. C
  5. D
Expert Tip – General Organic Chemistry

GOC builds the base of organic chemistry. NEET asks logic, not memory. Focus on effects like inductive and resonance. Compare stability step by step. Daily MCQ practice on GoPract helps in exam preparation and improves your speed when you study for exam.

NEET Chemistry MCQs – Environmental Chemistry - 24 Jan 2026

1. Which gas is the main cause of acid rain?

  • A) Carbon monoxide
  • B) Sulphur dioxide
  • C) Methane
  • D) Nitrogen

2. Which pollutant causes photochemical smog?

  • A) Ozone
  • B) Sulphur dioxide
  • C) Carbon dioxide
  • D) Lead

3. Which layer of the atmosphere absorbs harmful UV rays?

  • A) Troposphere
  • B) Mesosphere
  • C) Stratosphere
  • D) Thermosphere

4. Which chemical is responsible for ozone layer depletion?

  • A) Carbon dioxide
  • B) Chlorofluorocarbons
  • C) Sulphur dioxide
  • D) Nitrous oxide

5. Which gas is known as a greenhouse gas?

  • A) Oxygen
  • B) Nitrogen
  • C) Carbon dioxide
  • D) Argon
Answer Key
  1. B
  2. A
  3. C
  4. B
  5. C
Expert Tip – Environmental Chemistry

In NEET Exam Preparation, this chapter gives direct questions. Read NCERT lines carefully. Focus on gases, layers, and causes. Do not guess. Revise facts daily. Practice such MCQs on GoPract to study for exam with confidence.

NEET Chemistry MCQs – Some p-Block Elements - 23 Jan 2026

1. Which group 15 element shows maximum tendency to form multiple bonds?

  • A) Nitrogen
  • B) Phosphorus
  • C) Arsenic
  • D) Bismuth

2. Which oxide of nitrogen is neutral in nature?

  • A) N2O
  • B) NO2
  • C) N2O5
  • D) NO

3. Which allotrope of phosphorus is the most reactive?

  • A) White phosphorus
  • B) Red phosphorus
  • C) Black phosphorus
  • D) Violet phosphorus

4. Which halogen has the highest electronegativity?

  • A) Chlorine
  • B) Bromine
  • C) Fluorine
  • D) Iodine

5. Which acid is formed when nitrogen dioxide reacts with water?

  • A) Nitric acid only
  • B) Nitrous acid only
  • C) Both nitric and nitrous acid
  • D) No acid is formed
Answer Key
  1. A
  2. D
  3. A
  4. C
  5. C
Expert Tip – p-Block Elements

In NEET Exam Preparation, p-Block questions often come directly from NCERT facts. Focus on trends, oxides, and allotropes. Revise reactions daily. This habit helps you study for exam with confidence. Practice MCQs on GoPract to avoid silly mistakes.

NEET Chemistry MCQs – The s-Block Elements - 22 Jan 2026

1. Which of the following alkali metals has the highest hydration enthalpy?

  • A) Li
  • B) Na
  • C) K
  • D) Cs

2. Which alkaline earth metal sulphate is insoluble in water?

  • A) MgSO4
  • B) CaSO4
  • C) SrSO4
  • D) BaSO4

3. The anomalous behaviour of lithium compared to other alkali metals is mainly due to:

  • A) High atomic mass
  • B) Low ionisation energy
  • C) Small size and high polarising power
  • D) Presence of d-orbitals

4. Which of the following compounds is used in the Solvay process for the manufacture of sodium carbonate?

  • A) NaCl
  • B) NaOH
  • C) NaHCO3
  • D) Na2SO4

5. Which of the following statements about alkaline earth metals is correct?

  • A) They form monovalent ions
  • B) Their oxides are acidic
  • C) They are less reactive than alkali metals
  • D) They do not form complexes
Answer Key
  1. A
  2. D
  3. C
  4. C
  5. C
Expert Tip – s-Block Elements (NEET)

In NEET Exam Preparation, s-Block questions are often NCERT-line based. Focus on trends like hydration enthalpy, solubility of sulphates and anomalous behaviour of lithium. Regular MCQ practice on GoPract helps you study for exam smartly and avoid common trap options.

NEET Chemistry MCQs – Hydrogen (Medium Level) - 21 Jan 2026

1. Which of the following hydrides is saline in nature?

  • A) CH4
  • B) NH3
  • C) NaH
  • D) B2H6

2. Which of the following metals reacts with hydrogen to form an interstitial hydride?

  • A) Sodium
  • B) Magnesium
  • C) Palladium
  • D) Calcium

3. Heavy water (D2O) is mainly used:

  • A) As a reducing agent
  • B) As a moderator in nuclear reactors
  • C) For extraction of metals
  • D) As a solvent in organic reactions

4. Which of the following statements regarding hydrogen peroxide is correct?

  • A) It acts only as an oxidising agent
  • B) It acts only as a reducing agent
  • C) It can act as both oxidising and reducing agent
  • D) It is neutral in all reactions

5. The oxidation state of oxygen in hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) is:

  • A) −2
  • B) −1
  • C) 0
  • D) +1
Answer Key
  1. C
  2. C
  3. B
  4. C
  5. B
Short Note – Hydrogen (NEET)

Hydrogen forms three main types of hydrides: ionic (saline), covalent and interstitial. Hydrogen peroxide is a special compound where oxygen has an oxidation state of −1, allowing it to behave as both an oxidising and a reducing agent — a frequently tested NEET concept.

NEET Chemistry MCQs – Redox Reactions (High Difficulty) - 20 Jan 2026

1. In the reaction MnO4 + 8H+ + 5e → Mn2+ + 4H2O, the number of electrons gained per manganese atom is:

  • A) 3
  • B) 4
  • C) 5
  • D) 7

2. Which of the following species acts as an oxidising agent in the reaction: Zn + Cu2+ → Zn2+ + Cu ?

  • A) Zn
  • B) Zn2+
  • C) Cu
  • D) Cu2+

3. The oxidation number of sulphur in sodium thiosulphate (Na2S2O3) is:

  • A) +2
  • B) +5
  • C) −2
  • D) Average value of +2

4. Which of the following reactions is an example of a disproportionation reaction?

  • A) Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu
  • B) 2H2O → 2H2 + O2
  • C) Cl2 + 2OH → Cl + ClO + H2O
  • D) Fe + S → FeS

5. In acidic medium, which of the following is the correct balancing factor for electrons while balancing the reaction between Fe2+ and dichromate ion (Cr2O72−)?

  • A) 3
  • B) 5
  • C) 6
  • D) 7
Answer Key
  1. C
  2. D
  3. D
  4. C
  5. C
Short Note – Redox Reactions (NEET)

Oxidation number is a powerful tool to identify oxidation and reduction. In complex ions like thiosulphate, individual atoms may have different oxidation states, so an average value is used. Disproportionation reactions involve the same element undergoing both oxidation and reduction — a very common NEET trap.

NEET Chemistry MCQs – Equilibrium - 19 Jan 2026

1. For the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g), if the equilibrium constant Kc is very large, it indicates that:

  • A) Reactants are favoured
  • B) Products are favoured
  • C) Reaction does not proceed
  • D) Reaction is very slow

2. Which of the following changes will increase the yield of products for an exothermic reaction at equilibrium?

  • A) Increase in temperature
  • B) Decrease in temperature
  • C) Addition of catalyst
  • D) Decrease in pressure

3. The unit of equilibrium constant Kc for the reaction 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) is:

  • A) mol L−1
  • B) mol−1 L
  • C) mol−2 L2
  • D) No unit

4. Which of the following statements is correct for a catalyst in an equilibrium reaction?

  • A) It changes the value of Kc
  • B) It shifts equilibrium towards products
  • C) It increases the rate of both forward and backward reactions equally
  • D) It decreases activation energy of forward reaction only

5. For the equilibrium H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g), if the initial concentrations of H2 and I2 are equal, then at equilibrium:

  • A) [H2] = [I2]
  • B) [HI] = [H2]
  • C) [HI] = [I2]
  • D) [H2] ≠ [I2]
Answer Key
  1. B
  2. B
  3. B
  4. C
  5. A
Short Note – Equilibrium (NEET)

The equilibrium constant (Kc) depends only on temperature. A catalyst does not change the position of equilibrium or the value of Kc; it only helps the system reach equilibrium faster by increasing the rate of both forward and backward reactions.

NEET Chemistry MCQs – Thermodynamics - 18 Jan 2026

1. Which of the following quantities is a state function?

  • A) Heat
  • B) Work
  • C) Internal energy
  • D) Path length

2. For an endothermic reaction carried out at constant pressure, which of the following is correct?

  • A) ΔH < 0
  • B) ΔH > 0
  • C) ΔG = 0
  • D) ΔS < 0

3. The relation between enthalpy change (ΔH) and internal energy change (ΔU) for a reaction involving change in gaseous moles is:

  • A) ΔH = ΔU − ΔnRT
  • B) ΔH = ΔU + ΔnRT
  • C) ΔH = ΔU × ΔnRT
  • D) ΔH = ΔU / ΔnRT

4. Which of the following processes is spontaneous at all temperatures?

  • A) ΔH > 0, ΔS < 0
  • B) ΔH < 0, ΔS > 0
  • C) ΔH > 0, ΔS > 0
  • D) ΔH < 0, ΔS < 0

5. The efficiency of a reversible heat engine operating between two temperatures depends on:

  • A) Nature of working substance
  • B) Amount of heat absorbed
  • C) Temperatures of source and sink
  • D) Time taken for the cycle
Answer Key
  1. C
  2. B
  3. B
  4. B
  5. C
NEET Exam Tip – Thermodynamics

Always remember: ΔG = ΔH − TΔS. For spontaneity at all temperatures, the condition must be ΔH < 0 and ΔS > 0 — this concept is repeatedly tested in NEET through tricky options.

NEET Chemistry MCQs – States of Matter (Gases & Liquids) - 17 Jan 2026

1. Which of the following gases deviates most from ideal gas behaviour at high pressure and low temperature?

  • A) H2
  • B) N2
  • C) CO2
  • D) He

2. The value of compressibility factor (Z) for an ideal gas is:

  • A) 0
  • B) Less than 1
  • C) Greater than 1
  • D) Equal to 1

3. Which of the following factors is responsible for the high boiling point of water?

  • A) High molecular mass
  • B) Hydrogen bonding
  • C) Dipole moment
  • D) van der Waals forces

4. At constant temperature, the pressure of a gas is doubled. What happens to the volume of the gas?

  • A) Volume becomes double
  • B) Volume becomes half
  • C) Volume remains constant
  • D) Volume becomes four times

5. Which of the following statements is correct regarding real gases?

  • A) They obey Boyle’s law at all temperatures
  • B) They show no intermolecular attraction
  • C) They liquefy at very low temperatures
  • D) Their molecular volume is negligible
Answer Key
  1. C
  2. D
  3. B
  4. B
  5. C
NEET Exam Tip – States of Matter

Real gases deviate most from ideal behaviour at high pressure and low temperature. Remember: gases with strong intermolecular forces (like CO2) deviate more and are easier to liquefy — a very common NEET trap.

NEET Chemistry MCQs – Chemical Bonding & Molecular Structure - 16 Jan 2026

Chemical Bonding Medium

1. Which of the following molecules has zero dipole moment?

  • A) NH3
  • B) H2O
  • C) CO2
  • D) SO2
VSEPR Theory Medium

2. The molecular shape of ammonia (NH3) is:

  • A) Tetrahedral
  • B) Trigonal planar
  • C) Trigonal pyramidal
  • D) Linear
Hybridisation Medium

3. The central atom in SF6 undergoes which type of hybridisation?

  • A) sp3
  • B) sp3d
  • C) sp3d2
  • D) sp2d
Hydrogen Bonding Medium

4. Which of the following substances shows the strongest hydrogen bonding?

  • A) H2O
  • B) NH3
  • C) HF
  • D) CH3OH
Molecular Orbital Theory Medium

5. The bond order of the oxygen molecule (O2) according to molecular orbital theory is:

  • A) 1
  • B) 1.5
  • C) 2
  • D) 2.5
Answer Key
  1. C
  2. C
  3. C
  4. C
  5. C
Key Notes – Chemical Bonding & Molecular Structure
  • Symmetrical linear molecules like CO2 have zero dipole moment.
  • NH3 has trigonal pyramidal shape due to one lone pair.
  • SF6 shows sp3d2 hybridisation and octahedral geometry.
  • Hydrogen bonding strength is maximum in HF due to high electronegativity of fluorine.
  • Bond order = (bonding electrons − antibonding electrons) / 2.

NEET Chemistry MCQs – Classification of Elements & Periodicity - 15 Jan 2026

Periodicity Medium

1. Which of the following properties generally increases from left to right across a period in the periodic table?

  • A) Atomic radius
  • B) Metallic character
  • C) Ionization enthalpy
  • D) Reducing power
Periodicity Medium

2. Which element has the maximum electron gain enthalpy?

  • A) Fluorine
  • B) Chlorine
  • C) Oxygen
  • D) Nitrogen
Periodic Table Medium

3. The correct order of increasing atomic radius among the following elements is:
O, F, N, C

  • A) F < O < N < C
  • B) C < N < O < F
  • C) O < F < N < C
  • D) N < O < F < C
Ionization Enthalpy Medium

4. The first ionization enthalpy of oxygen is less than that of nitrogen because:

  • A) Oxygen has higher nuclear charge
  • B) Oxygen has a larger atomic size
  • C) Oxygen has paired electrons in p-orbitals
  • D) Nitrogen has lower electronegativity
Valency Medium

5. Which of the following elements shows variable oxidation states most commonly?

  • A) Sodium
  • B) Magnesium
  • C) Aluminium
  • D) Iron
Answer Key
  1. C
  2. B
  3. A
  4. C
  5. D
Key Notes – Classification of Elements & Periodicity
  • Atomic radius decreases across a period and increases down a group.
  • Ionization enthalpy increases from left to right across a period.
  • Chlorine has higher electron gain enthalpy than fluorine due to less repulsion.
  • Extra stability of half-filled orbitals explains anomalies (N vs O).
  • Transition metals commonly show variable oxidation states.

NEET Chemistry MCQs – Structure of Atom - 14 Jan 2026

Structure of Atom Medium

1. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a shell with principal quantum number n = 4 is:

  • A) 16
  • B) 18
  • C) 32
  • D) 50
Structure of Atom Medium

2. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is not allowed?

  • A) n = 3, l = 2, m = −2, s = +1/2
  • B) n = 2, l = 1, m = 0, s = −1/2
  • C) n = 3, l = 3, m = 1, s = +1/2
  • D) n = 1, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2
Structure of Atom Medium

3. The wavelength of radiation associated with an electron moving in the first orbit of hydrogen atom is given by:

  • A) de Broglie equation
  • B) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
  • C) Pauli exclusion principle
  • D) Hund’s rule
Structure of Atom Medium

4. Which transition in the hydrogen atom corresponds to the emission of radiation of maximum wavelength?

  • A) n = 4 → n = 3
  • B) n = 3 → n = 2
  • C) n = 2 → n = 1
  • D) n = 5 → n = 1
Structure of Atom Medium

5. Which of the following orbitals has a dumbbell shape?

  • A) s-orbital
  • B) p-orbital
  • C) d-orbital
  • D) f-orbital
Answer Key
  1. C
  2. C
  3. A
  4. A
  5. B
Key Notes – Structure of Atom
  • Maximum electrons in a shell = 2n2
  • Azimuthal quantum number (l) ranges from 0 to (n − 1)
  • de Broglie equation: λ = h / mv
  • Lower energy transition → higher wavelength
  • s-orbitals are spherical, p-orbitals are dumbbell shaped

NEET Chemistry MCQs – Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry - 13 Jan 2026

Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry Medium

1. How many significant figures are present in the measurement 0.004560?

  • A) 3
  • B) 4
  • C) 5
  • D) 6
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry Medium

2. The number of atoms present in 0.1 mole of sodium is approximately:

  • A) 6.02 × 1021
  • B) 6.02 × 1022
  • C) 6.02 × 1023
  • D) 3.01 × 1023
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry Medium

3. What is the mass of one mole of electrons?
(Mass of one electron = 9.1 × 10−28 g)

  • A) 0.0055 g
  • B) 0.00055 g
  • C) 5.5 g
  • D) 55 g
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry Medium

4. A compound contains 40% carbon, 6.7% hydrogen and 53.3% oxygen by mass. The empirical formula of the compound is:

  • A) CH2O
  • B) C2H4O
  • C) CHO
  • D) C2H2O
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry Medium

5. Which of the following quantities has the same numerical value in SI and CGS systems?

  • A) Length
  • B) Mass
  • C) Temperature
  • D) Time
Answer Key
  1. B
  2. B
  3. A
  4. A
  5. D

NEET Chemistry MCQs – Daily Practice (Medium Level) 12 Jan 2026

Physical Chemistry Medium

1. The number of moles of KMnO4 required to oxidize 1 mole of Fe2+ ions in acidic medium is:

  • A) 1/5
  • B) 1/3
  • C) 1/2
  • D) 1
Physical Chemistry Medium

2. For a first-order reaction, if the rate constant is doubled, the half-life of the reaction will:

  • A) Remain unchanged
  • B) Become half
  • C) Become double
  • D) Become four times
Organic Chemistry Medium

3. Which of the following compounds undergoes SN1 reaction most readily?

  • A) CH3Cl
  • B) C2H5Cl
  • C) (CH3)3CCl
  • D) C6H5CH2Cl
Organic Chemistry Medium

4. Which of the following reagents converts an aldehyde directly into a primary alcohol?

  • A) PCC
  • B) KMnO4
  • C) NaBH4
  • D) Tollens’ reagent
Inorganic Chemistry Medium

5. Which of the following species is paramagnetic?

  • A) Zn2+
  • B) Cu+
  • C) Fe3+
  • D) Ni2+ (low spin)
Answer Key
  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. C
  5. C

NEET Chemistry MCQs – Today’s Practice 11 Jan 2026

Physical Chemistry Medium

1. At 25°C, the vapour pressure of pure water is 23.8 mm Hg. When a non-volatile solute is added, the vapour pressure becomes 22.6 mm Hg. The mole fraction of the solute in the solution is:

  • A) 0.050
  • B) 0.052
  • C) 0.048
  • D) 0.045
Physical Chemistry Easy

2. For a reaction, the half-life is independent of the initial concentration of the reactant. The order of the reaction is:

  • A) Zero order
  • B) First order
  • C) Second order
  • D) Pseudo-first order
Organic Chemistry Medium

3. Which of the following reactions proceeds via a free radical mechanism?

  • A) Addition of HBr to propene (without peroxide)
  • B) Nitration of benzene
  • C) Chlorination of methane in sunlight
  • D) Hydration of ethene
Organic Chemistry Tricky

4. Which of the following compounds gives a positive iodoform test?

  • A) Propanal
  • B) Acetophenone
  • C) Benzaldehyde
  • D) Methanol
Inorganic Chemistry Medium

5. The coordination number and geometry of the complex [Ni(CO)₄] are respectively:

  • A) 4, square planar
  • B) 4, tetrahedral
  • C) 6, octahedral
  • D) 2, linear
Answer Key
  1. C
  2. B
  3. C
  4. B
  5. B

NEET Chemistry MCQs – Today’s Practice Questions 10 Jan 2026

Physical Chemistry Medium

1. A sample contains 3.01 × 1023 molecules of a gas X. The mass of the sample is 16 g. The molecular mass of gas X is:

  • A) 16 g mol⁻¹
  • B) 24 g mol⁻¹
  • C) 32 g mol⁻¹
  • D) 48 g mol⁻¹
Physical Chemistry Easy

2. For a spontaneous process at constant temperature and pressure, which of the following conditions must be satisfied?

  • A) ΔH < 0 and ΔS < 0
  • B) ΔG < 0
  • C) ΔG > 0
  • D) ΔH = 0
Organic Chemistry Medium

3. Which of the following carbocations is the most stable?

  • A) CH₃⁺
  • B) CH₃–CH₂⁺
  • C) (CH₃)₂CH⁺
  • D) (CH₃)₃C⁺
Organic Chemistry Tricky

4. When propene reacts with HBr in the presence of peroxide, the major product formed is:

  • A) 1-bromopropane
  • B) 2-bromopropane
  • C) 1,2-dibromopropane
  • D) 2,3-dibromopropane
Inorganic Chemistry Easy

5. What is the oxidation state of cobalt in the complex [Co(NH₃)₆]Cl₃?

  • A) +1
  • B) +2
  • C) +3
  • D) 0
Answer Key
  1. C
  2. B
  3. D
  4. A
  5. C

Daily Chemistry MCQs – NEET / MHT-CET (9 Jan 2026)

Physical Chemistry Medium

1. How many moles of oxygen atoms are present in 11.2 L of carbon dioxide gas at STP?

  • A) 0.25 mol
  • B) 0.5 mol
  • C) 1 mol
  • D) 2 mol
Organic Chemistry Easy

2. Which reagent is used to distinguish between aldehydes and ketones?

  • A) Fehling’s solution
  • B) Tollens’ reagent
  • C) Benedict’s solution
  • D) Schiff’s reagent
Inorganic Chemistry Medium

3. Which of the following has the highest lattice energy?

  • A) NaCl
  • B) KCl
  • C) MgO
  • D) CaO
Physical Chemistry Tricky

4. For a first-order reaction, the time required to complete 75% of the reaction is:

  • A) t½
  • B) 2t½
  • C) 3t½
  • D) t½ / 2
Organic Chemistry Medium

5. Which of the following compounds shows geometrical isomerism?

  • A) Propene
  • B) But-2-ene
  • C) Ethyne
  • D) Propane
Answer Key
  1. C
  2. B
  3. C
  4. B
  5. B

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